HomeNewsBusinessEconomyMarc Faber is wrong. 2028 or 2038 or later, the rupee is unlikely to ever hit 100

Marc Faber is wrong. 2028 or 2038 or later, the rupee is unlikely to ever hit 100

Some of the reasons why this may not happen, include the new 4% inflation target and India's rapid growth.

September 30, 2018 / 18:00 IST
Story continues below Advertisement

Harsh Gupta Moneycontrol Contributor

In a recent interview, Marc Faber, editor and publisher of "The Gloom, Boom & Doom Report", said "In 1990, the Indian unit was around 12 against the US dollar. In 2008 – 09, it was close to 39 levels and since then, the trend has been down. I am sure the rupee will go over 100 levels. But, will it go over this level in six months or in 10 years is a debatable question. I don’t think it will hit 100/$ in the next six months. But it will hit this level in the next 10 years." I will argue here why Faber is wrong on this specific assertion "the rupee will go over 100... in the next 10 years", not just with respect to the 2028 timeline, but even to a 2038 or a later deadline.

Around 10 years ago, dollar/rupee was in the early 40s, but let us say 39 as Marc says. Today it is touching 73. That is almost a 6.5 percent depreciation yearly. At this rate it could hit 100 in 2023-24, not even 2028 as Marc claims. Yet my claim is that the rupee will never hit triple digits – or to be more technically correct, such a scenario is extremely unlikely. This seems ludicrous yet the ludicrous is logical. To explain my hypothesis better, we need to quickly explore a few building blocks. First we need to understand a few concepts: nominal exchange rate, real exchange rate, purchasing power parity, the Balassa Samuelson effect and economic convergence. Finally we must ask: OK, but why now and why India?

Story continues below Advertisement

The nominal exchange rate is what we hear all the time: for example, 70 rupees being exchanged for one US dollar in the market. Assume that interest rates in US and India are 2 and 10 percent respectively. Finally, consider the scenario that the nominal rate stays at 70 for over a year. Now an Indian who had 70,000 rupees in her account last year will this year have 77,000 rupees. An American who had 1,000 dollars in her account will have 1,020 dollars. But if the Indian travels to the US, she can get 1,100 dollars after conversion! How is the Indian suddenly better off by 100 dollars while the American is only by 20? It is because the nominal exchange rate did not depreciate by around 8 percent (10-2 percent) i.e. the rupee did not go down to approximately 75.6 from 70. Why are interest rates so different to begin with? Largely but not entirely because inflation rates are so different.

The higher-inflation currency should generally depreciate by around the inflation differential in nominal terms for the real exchange rate between the two currencies to remain constant. If the nominal exchange rate remains same, then the higher-inflation currency has actually appreciated in real terms. Also, a currency’s real value is not just measured against only one other currency but a basket of currencies, with the various pairs of real exchange rates being standardized at the starting year (say, at 100) and their weights depending on the ongoing trade between the countries. This resultant number is called the real effective exchange rate or REER of a country, and depending on the number of trading partners in the basket the REER can be narrow or broad; generally, the broader the index the more useful it is. Now as Figure 1 shows, in the last 25 years or so, Indian and American REER have largely remained constant or appreciated very marginally but the Chinese REER has almost doubled. Why is that?